THE CONDITION OF THE DEAD, ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE?
What happens when we die? That is a question nearly everyone has wondered about, and asked. The only true source that can give us an answer to this question is the Bible. Since none of us have ever experienced death, then the only possible way that we can know what happens to us after death, is to consult the Word of God, the One Who created us. This question is a source of much debate among many religions. Jehovah's Witnesses claim that a person who dies physically also ceases to exist spiritually, and they have a number of verses they use to further their argument. But do these verses really support the Watchtower's teachings, when they are read in context? Let us examine them and find out. Here are some common Watchtower "proof-texts" which they claim proves that the dead are in a state of non-existence...
Psalm 146:3-4- "Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help. His breath goeth forth, he returneth to his earth; in that very day his thoughts perish".
At first glance, one may conclude that the phrase "his thoughts perish" might seem to support the JWs claim. But does it really? Not at all, for the JWs have completely misunderstood what this passage is teaching. In context, we find that the subject of life-after-death, or the condition of the dead, is not even under discussion anywhere in the passage. It isn't even mentioned. What this passage is saying is actually quite simple....We are not to trust in mere human beings as our hope for the future, because one day they will die. When they die, it doesn't matter how good or wonderful their plans or "thoughts" may have been. At their death, every thought or plan that they may have had for the future died with them. A perfect example of this was the case of President John F. Kennedy. Many people believed and hoped that he would improve their lot in life through the plans that he had, but when he was assassinated, all of his plans for the future died with him. His thoughts "perished."
Is this simply my opinion of what this verse means, or can it be shown that this is indeed the meaning? Well, first of all, a simple reading of the chapter in context will bear this out. Second, it is often helpful to compare Scripture with Scripture. Often times, another parallel portion of Scripture can help shed light on a particular verse. The JWs have over-looked the fact that Ps. 146:3-4 actually has another parallel passage, which shows clearly that this verse should be understood to mean that at death, a person's plans for the future perish. Let us examine Prov. 10:28 and Prov. 11:7. We read....
Prov.10:28- "The hope of the righteous shall be gladness: but THE EXPECTATION of the wicked shall perish".
Prov. 11:7- "When a wicked man dieth, HIS EXPECTATION SHALL PERISH: and THE HOPE of unjust men perisheth."
I think it will become plain to the honest-hearted reader of these verses that, when the Word of God tells us that a man's "thoughts" perish at death, it is in reference to his thoughts or plans for the future. The condition of the dead is not even in view in Psalm 146:3-4.
The next passage of Scripture that we will discuss is Ecclesiastes 9:5. This is probably the most commonly used passage by Jehovah's Witnesses to show the non-existence of the dead. We read....
Eccl. 9:5- "For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not anything, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten."
"See", Jehovah's Witnesses say, "the Bible says that the dead do not know anything". We must remember that it is vitally important to read Scriptures in their proper context, meaning we must be very careful to read the surrounding verses, as well as other verses that deal with the subject, also. Well, let's do that with this verse. If the JWs had bothered to read the context of this verse, they would never have dared to use it to "prove" their doctrine of extinction at death. They have not only ignored the immediate context, but have ignored the whole theme of the Book of Ecclesiastes. It just so happens that God inspired the Bible writer (Solomon) to record these words AS AN OPPOSING VIEW-POINT!. In fact, the whole theme of the Book of Ecclesiastes is "Vanity of vanities" (1:2). If you will recall, Solomon was a man blessed of God, and given much wisdom. But even with all of God's blessings, Solomon went through a period of his life where he began to practice idolatry, and turn from the true and living God. Towards the end of his life, however, he returned to the worship of the true God, and wrote the Book of Ecclesiastes. The whole book is a type of back-and-forth dialogue between true faith in God, and skepticism of God and eternity. In fact, one finds the phrase "under the sun" used 29 times in Ecclesiastes, which is a phrase referring to this earthly life. In context, the first part of this chapter deals with eternity FROM A SKEPTICS STANDPOINT! If JWs would read the context of chapter 9, they would see that clearly. Let us consider the other verses in Ecclesiastes chapter 9.....
verse 2- "All things come alike to all: there is one event to the righteous, and to the wicked; to the good and to the clean, and to the unclean; to him that sacrificeth, and to him that sacrificeth not: as is the good, so is the sinner; and he that sweareth, as he that feareth an oath."
This passage teaches that death will come to all alike, whether they be righteous or evil, it doesn't matter.
verse 3-4- "This is an evil among all things that are done under the sun, that there is one event unto all: yea, also the heart of the sons of men is full of evil, and madness is in their heart while they live, and after that they go to the dead. For to him that is joined to all the living there is hope: for a living dog is better than a dead lion."
These verses teach that, after we are dead, there is no hope.
verse 5- "For the living know that they shall die: but THE DEAD KNOW NOT ANY THING, NEITHER HAVE THEY ANY MORE A REWARD; FOR THE MEMORY OF THEM IS FORGOTTEN."
JWs have isolated one small phrase ("the dead know not any thing") from this verse to prove their point, but they have neglected to read the rest of the verse. If they had, they would see that it teaches us that people who have died, have no more reward, and their memory is forgotten. JWs themselves disagree with this, as they believe in a resurrection of the dead. They also believe that Jehovah God has those righteous ones who have died "in His memory". But, according to this verse, that is not so. Let's read on.
verse 6- "Also their love, and their hatred, and their envy, is now perished: NEITHER HAVE THEY ANY MORE A PORTION FOR EVER IN ANY THING THAT IS DONE UNDER THE SUN."
According to this verse, the love, hatred, and envy of the deceased person is gone forever (compare with 1 Cor. 13:8,13). Not only that, but he has no hope of any future reward. Notice...."Neither have they any more a portion FOR EVER in any thing that is done under the sun." Ask a JW if he/she believes that, once they die, they have no more hope for the future. They will tell you that they believe they will be resurrected to life on a paradise earth. JWs themselves do not even agree with the statements found in these verses, yet they have isolated one small portion of one verse to prove their false doctrine that dead people are not conscious in eternity.
When reading Ecclesiastes, it is very vital to understand the subject matter and the theme. Reading through its 12 chapters, one finds 2 points of view presented, a Godly point of view, and an ungodly and skeptical point of view, with the Godly perspective winning out in the end (12:1, 13-14). Unfortunately for the JWs, it is the ungodly, skeptical point of view that is being presented in chapter 9, and by not reading the surrounding verses, they have used a portion of a Scripture to "prove" their doctrine, which in reality, was written to show the OPPOSING view-point. This simply is poor Bible interpretation. The Book of Ecclesiastes was inspired by God to show us the importance of holding onto God, and remaining in His will. It shows us how far away from God we can get, when we fail to do this. This was Solomon's experience, and it is there for our learning. Solomon had begun to question the hope of eternity, and the existence of the after-life during the time when he was away from God. Suffice it to say, the JWs have BADLY misunderstood Ecclesiastes 9:5, and a careful reading of the context clearly reveals this.
John 11:11-14- This verse is sometimes used, as though it somehow proves that Lazarus was in some sort of unconscious state after the death of his body. I don't think anyone is questioning the fact that Lazarus was dead. The problem is, JWs have a very unbiblical definition of "death". In Scripture, death NEVER refers to extinction of being, but rather "separation". When we read of physical death, it is a "separation" of the body from the soul and spirit. When we read of spiritual death, it is a "separation" of man from God. NOWHERE does death carry the meaning of annhilation or extinction. In fact, Scripture nowhere teaches ANYTHING but the death of the BODY. In Lazarus' case, the Bible says nothing at all about whether Lazarus was conscious in the spirit, but refers to his PHYSICAL life. There are many Scriptures that show the spirit living on after the death of the body, and we will examine these in a moment. First, let us consider another passage of Scripture very often used by JWs, and will almost certainly come up in a conversation with them concerning the nature of the soul. This Scripture is found in Ezekiel 18:4.
Ezekiel 18:4- "Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die".
JWs often use this verse to prove that "the soul dies" at the moment of the death of the body. Their misuse of this passage ranks second only to Eccl. 9:5 in being removed completely from its context. What is this verse actually saying? It is very important to remember that "soul" in the Bible is used more than one way. It sometimes refers to the whole person (Gen. 2:7), and it often refers to a part of a person, separate from the body (Gen. 35:18, Matt. 10:28). Other times, it refers to the inner-most part of man. In this particular passage in Ezekiel, "soul" obviously refers to the whole individual. It is not at all uncommon to use a part to describe the whole. We employ this kind of language even today. We may refer to a mountain as a "Peak", when in reality, the peak is only the top part of the mountain. We refer to a car as a "set of wheels", even though wheels are only a portion of the car. A woman may purchase a "pair of heels", of course, referring to the whole pair of shoes. This is very common. That being said, JWs have still misinterpreted the phrase "the soul that sinneth, it shall die" of Ezekiel 18:4.
First, it again needs to be mentioned that the condition of the dead is not under discussion anywhere in Ezekiel 18. Instead, God is refuting the claim of the children of Israel that He was punishing children for the sins of the parents. Read verse 2.
verse 2- "What mean ye, that ye use this proverb concerning the land of Israel, saying, The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge?"
They were saying that God was allowing innocent children to suffer the consequences for their parent's sins, and God tells them they will no longer be able to say that about Him, because the "soul that sinneth, it shall die". In plain English, God is saying...."The person who sins is the one who will be punished and die for it. Each person bears responsibility for their own sins". It does not take a very long reading of this chapter to see that this is the meaning. There are many problems with the JW interpretation of this verse. They are as follows:
1. This verse says that only the "soul THAT SINNETH" shall die, meaning the unrighteous person. What, then, about the soul of the RIGHTEOUS PERSON? Does their soul also die at death? The Watcthower would say "yes", but is that what the verse says? No, it is not. It clearly singles out the soul of the one practicing sin, yet, JWs use this verse to prove their soul-sleep doctrine for everyone who dies (except the 144,000, of course).
2. JWs really should read the rest of the chapter. If they did, they would find that verse 20 actually explains clearly the meaning of verse 4 (compare with Deut. 24:16, 2 Kings 14:6, and 2 Chron. 25:4). They would also see that verse 27 speaks of the wicked man who turns from his wicked way, and becomes righteous, will "SAVE HIS SOUL ALIVE". According to this, the soul of the righteous man does not die, only the soul of the "one that sinneth". Of course, the Watchtower would have us believe that the soul of even the most righteous Christian dies at the moment of the death of their physical body. Sorry, but that is not what is being taught here, or for that matter, anywhere else in God's Word. If we simply accept the Bible meaning of "death" as being a "separation", then Ezek. 18:4 makes perfect sense....The unrighteous soul will "die" (be separated from God), and the righteous soul will "save his soul alive" (live in God's presence).
3. There is another point that is worth mentioning. JWs actually believe that children who die may or may not be resurrected, based on the lifestyle OF THEIR PARENTS, completely contrary to what this verse is saying. God makes it clear He does not hold children spiritually accountable for the sins of their parents. I find it incredible that JWs attach a meaning to Ezekiel 18:4 that is not even mentioned in the context, yet teach the exact opposite of what the verse DOES teach!
Does the Bible support the idea of a conscious existence after the death of the body? Yes! In more places than space will permit here. I will list a few good examples.
Matthew 10:28- "And fear not them which kill the body, but are NOT ABLE TO KILL THE SOUL: but rather fear Him, Which is able to destroy both soul and body in Hell."
Jesus plainly tells us that man can only kill the body, but NOT the soul. If JWs were correct, the soul would immediately die when man kills the body. Jesus probably would have been disfellowshipped from the Watchtower for His belief about the after-life.
Matthew 22:32- "I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, BUT OF THE LIVING".
Why would Jesus refer to these men, who had long since died in the flesh, as being "living"?
Luke 16:19-31- JWs have done everything in their power to explain away this passage as a parable, and have completely given it a meaning that one would never arrive at in a million years by reading this on his own. This story clearly shows conscious existence after death, Lazarus being comforted, and the rich man suffering the torments of Hell. He still has his ability to think, speak, remember, feel pain, etc. He even has concern for his family that are still living, that they do not go to Hell. One thing from the passage is clear....There is conscious existence after death.
What did the Apostle Paul think about the existence of life after death? Did he expect himself to go into a condition of non-existence, or did he believe he would be in the presence of the Lord immediately at death? Let us consider...
2 Cor. 5:8- "We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to BE PRESENT WITH THE LORD."
Philippians 1:21-23- "For me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt, having a desire to DEPART, AND TO BE WITH CHRIST; WHICH IS FAR BETTER".
Think about it. If Paul were merely going to lie non-existent in a grave somewhere, how could this be described as "far better"?
2 Timothy 4:6-8- "For I am now ready to be offered, and THE TIME OF MY DEPARTURE IS AT HAND. I have fought a good fight, I have finished my course, I have kept the faith: Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto ALL THEM also that love His appearing."
Paul spoke these words just before his death. Does anyone really think Paul was speaking of his "departure" to the grave?
I guess the JWs will attempt to get around this issue by saying that Paul was one of the 144,000.
Well, then, what did Paul tell other Christians their belief should be? Let's look at 1 Thess. 4:13-14....
1 Thess. 4:13-14- "But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus WILL GOD BRING WITH HIM."
This is an excellent passage, in that it describes not only the physical resurrection of the dead bodies of God's saints, but also shows that they are with the Lord in the spirit. How else could God "bring them with Him" at His return? This is only possible if they are with Him to begin with.
Also, let us consider a few key passages from Revelation.
Rev. 6:9- "And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the Word of God, and for the testimony which they held; and they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth"?
Here are souls of dead Christians, whose bodies "were slain". They had died physically! Yet, we see them in spirit form carrying on conversation, and with their full memory of life on earth. In verse 11, they even put on robes!
Rev. 20:4- "And I saw thrones, and they say upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the Word of God...."
These souls had been be-headed, which I am sure resulted in the death of their bodies. But again, we find a clear instance of their soul being separate from their bodies, and in a state of conscious existence.
Consider also Rev. 14:10-11, 19:20, and 20:10. Do any of these passages support the Watchtower's annhilation doctrine?
In closing, I believe it is safe to say that the Bible clearly shows the existence of the soul and spirit beyond the death of the body. It should also be obvious why Satan would not want people to believe that there will be an eternal existence that they will experience after the death of their bodies. If he can keep people blinded to this fact, then he has also blinded them to the existence of a literal and burning Hell, and therefore, their need to be saved through the blood of Jesus Christ. But thank God that Jesus Christ died on the cross, shed His precious blood for our sins, rose again on the 3rd day, and is coming back again! We have the hope of Heaven if we will simply accept His perfect sacrifice as the payment for our sins, repent, and place our trust in Him.
